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Virus and Bacteria Solved MCQs

Virus and Bacteria in Biological Sciences 

Virus and Bacteria


1. What is a virus?

   a) A type of bacteria  
   b) A non-living infectious agent  
   c) A unicellular organism  
   d) A plant-based pathogen  


2. How do viruses reproduce?

   a) Binary fission  
   b) Mitosis  
   c) Meiosis  
   d) Hijacking host cell machinery  


3. Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?

   a) Influenza  
   b) Tuberculosis  
   c) COVID-19  
   d) HIV/AIDS  


4. What is the outer covering of a virus called?

   a) Cell wall  
   b) Capsid  
   c) Nucleus  
   d) Membrane  

 
5. What does the acronym RNA stand for in the context of viruses?

   a) Ribonucleic Acid  
   b) Retrograde Nucleotide Assembly  
   c) Replication Nucleic Acid  
   d) Respiratory Nucleotide Array  


6. What type of virus is known for infecting executable files and spreading through software programs?

a) Trojan Horse  
b) Boot Sector Virus  
c) Macro Virus  
d) Worm


7. Which type of virus disguises itself as a legitimate program but actually performs malicious actions in the background?

a) Spyware  
b) Adware  
c) Ransomware  
d) Trojan Horse


8. What is a characteristic of a macro virus?

a) Spreads through infected software  
b) Exploits vulnerabilities in web browsers  
c) Infects document files containing macros  
d) Targets the computer's boot sector


9. Which virus is specifically designed to replicate and spread across computer networks?

a) Worm  
b) Boot Sector Virus  
c) Macro Virus  
d) Ransomware


10. What type of virus encrypts files on a victim's computer and demands payment for their release?

a) Adware  
b) Ransomware  
c) Spyware  
d) Rootkit


11. What is the primary method of reproduction in viruses?

   a) Binary fission
   b) Mitosis
   c) Budding
   d) Meiosis


12. Which of the following is a characteristic of the lytic cycle in viral reproduction?

a) Integration of viral DNA into host genome
b) Release of new viruses without causing cell lysis
c) Destruction of the host cell
d) Coexistence with the host cell


13. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in certain viruses during reproduction?

  a) Synthesizing viral RNA
  b) Transcribing host DNA
  c) Converting viral RNA into DNA
  d) Inhibiting host cell division


14. How do enveloped viruses acquire their envelope during the budding process?

a) From the host cell's membrane
b) Through synthesis within the viral capsid
c) By stealing it from other viruses
d) Envelopes are not involved in viral reproduction


15. Which phase of the viral life cycle involves the integration of viral DNA into the host cell's genome?

 a) Attachment
 b) Penetration
 c) Latency
 d) Maturation


16. What is the primary causative agent of COVID-19?

   a) Influenza virus
   b) Coronavirus
   c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
   d) Dengue virus


17. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito?

   a) Influenza
   b) Tuberculosis
   c) Malaria
   d) Dengue fever


18. What is the mode of transmission for the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)?

   a) Airborne
   b) Sexual contact
   c) Waterborne
   d) Vector-borne


19. Which viral infection is characterized by a distinctive red rash and high fever?

   a) Measles
   b) Tuberculosis
   c) Hepatitis B
   d) Typhoid


20. What is the primary vector responsible for transmitting malaria?

   a) Tsetse fly
   b) Anopheles mosquito
   c) Aedes mosquito
   d) Culex mosquito


21. Which organ is primarily affected by the Hepatitis B virus?

   a) Lungs
   b) Liver
   c) Kidneys
   d) Heart


22. The common cold is often caused by which type of virus?

   a) Rhinovirus
   b) Coronavirus
   c) Influenza virus
   d) Herpes virus


23. What is the main route of transmission for the Zika virus?

   a) Sexual contact
   b) Mosquito bites
   c) Contaminated food
   d) Airborne


24. Which disease is caused by the Varicella-zoster virus?

   a) Chickenpox
   b) Tuberculosis
   c) Cholera
   d) Yellow fever


25. What is the causative agent of Ebola virus disease?

   a) Filovirus
   b) Flavivirus
   c) Paramyxovirus
   d) Retrovirus


26. What is the primary purpose of a vaccine?

   a) Treat viral infections  
   b) Prevent bacterial infections  
   c) Boost the immune system  
   d) Alleviate symptoms of allergies  


27. Which of the following is a viral disease?
   
   a) Tuberculosis  
   b) Influenza  
   c) Staphylococcus infection  
   d) Lyme disease  


28. What is the MMR vaccine primarily used to prevent?

   a) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella  
   b) Malaria, Mumps, and Rheumatism  
   c) Measles, Measles, and Rabies  
   d) Mumps, Malaria, and Rubella  


29. Which viral infection is prevented by the Hepatitis B vaccine?

   a) Hepatitis C  
   b) Hepatitis A  
   c) Hepatitis B  
   d) Hepatitis D  


30. What is the common name for the Varicella vaccine?

   a) Chickenpox vaccine  
   b) Polio vaccine  
   c) Tetanus vaccine  
   d) Hepatitis A vaccine  


31. The HPV vaccine is designed to prevent infections that can lead to:

   a) Influenza  
   b) Cervical cancer  
   c) Tuberculosis  
   d) Chickenpox  


32. Which of the following vaccines is administered to prevent yellow fever?

   a) Typhoid vaccine  
   b) Yellow fever vaccine  
   c) Cholera vaccine  
   d) Dengue fever vaccine  


33. The pneumococcal vaccine is primarily aimed at preventing infections caused by:

   a) Viruses  
   b) Bacteria  
   c) Fungi  
   d) Parasites  


34. What does the acronym HIV stand for?

   a) Human Influenza Virus  
   b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus  
   c) Hepatitis Infection Vaccine  
   d) Herpes Invasive Variant  

   
35. Which viral disease has been successfully eradicated worldwide through vaccination efforts?

   a) Polio  
   b) Smallpox  
   c) Measles  
   d) Tuberculosis  


36. What is the primary structure that provides bacteria with their shape and rigidity?

   a) Cell membrane  
   b) Ribosome  
   c) Cell wall  
   d) Nucleus  


37. Which of the following bacteria shapes is characterized by a spherical structure?

   a) Bacillus  
   b) Spirillum  
   c) Coccus  
   d) Vibrio  


38. What is the term for the process by which bacteria reproduce asexually by dividing into two identical cells?

   a) Conjugation  
   b) Binary fission  
   c) Transformation  
   d) Transduction  


39. Which of the following bacteria is known for its ability to survive in extreme environmental conditions, such as high temperatures?

   a) Escherichia coli (E. coli)  
   b) Thermotoga  
   c) Streptococcus  
   d) Pseudomonas  


40. What is the function of pili in bacteria?

   a) Cellular respiration  
   b) DNA transfer during conjugation  
   c) Protein synthesis  
   d) Flagellar movement  

 
41. Which bacterial structure is responsible for locomotion and movement?

   a) Capsule  
   b) Flagellum  
   c) Plasmid  
   d) Endospore  

   
42. What is the role of the capsule in some bacteria?

   a) Protection against antibiotics  
   b) Facilitating cell division  
   c) Nutrient absorption  
   d) Evasion of immune system defenses  

  
43. Which of the following is an example of a Gram-negative bacteria?

   a) Staphylococcus aureus  
   b) Escherichia coli (E. coli)  
   c) Clostridium botulinum  
   d) Bacillus subtilis  


44. What is the purpose of endospores in bacteria?

   a) Reproduction  
   b) Protection during harsh conditions  
   c) Oxygen production  
   d) Energy storage  

   
45. Which bacterial process involves the transfer of genetic material between two bacterial cells through direct contact?

   a) Transduction  
   b) Transformation  
   c) Conjugation  
   d) Replication  


46. What is the primary shape of cocci bacteria?

   a. Rod-shaped
   b. Spiral
   c. Spherical
   d. Cuboidal


47. Which of the following bacteria is known for its helical shape?

   a. Escherichia coli
   b. Bacillus subtilis
   c. Helicobacter pylori
   d. Staphylococcus aureus


48. What is the distinguishing feature of bacilli bacteria?

   a. Clusters
   b. Chains
   c. Pairs
   d. Singular rods


49. Cyanobacteria are characterized by their ability to:

   a. Fix nitrogen
   b. Photosynthesize
   c. Produce spores
   d. Parasitize other bacteria


50. Which bacteria are commonly found in soil and play a crucial role in nitrogen fixation?

   a. Nitrospirae
   b. Actinobacteria
   c. Firmicutes
   d. Cyanobacteria


51. What is the primary method of reproduction in bacteria?

  a) Mitosis
  b) Meiosis
  c) Binary fission
  d) Budding


52. What is the main purpose of bacterial conjugation?

  a) Genetic recombination
  b) Asexual reproduction
  c) Spore formation
  d) Cellular respiration


53. Which of the following structures is involved in the transfer of genetic material during bacterial conjugation?

  a) Flagellum
  b) Pili
  c) Capsule
  d) Plasmid


54. In bacterial reproduction, what is the result of binary fission?

  a) Two identical daughter cells
  b) Four genetically different cells
  c) One daughter cell and one spore
  d) Multiple daughter cells


55. What role do endospores play in bacterial reproduction?

a) They facilitate conjugation 
b) They are a result of binary fission
c) They enable bacteria to survive harsh conditions
d) They promote genetic diversity

  
56. What is the primary cause of tuberculosis?

   a. Virus  
   b. Bacteria  
   c. Fungus  
   d. Parasite


57. Which bacterium is responsible for causing strep throat?

   a. Escherichia coli  
   b. Streptococcus pyogenes  
   c. Staphylococcus aureus  
   d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis


58. What bacterial infection is commonly associated with contaminated food or water?
 
   a. Tetanus  
   b. Cholera  
   c. Tuberculosis  
   d. Syphilis


59. Which bacteria is known for causing urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

   a. Salmonella  
   b. Escherichia coli  
   c. Clostridium difficile  
   d. Helicobacter pylori


60. What bacterial infection can be prevented through vaccination with the BCG vaccine?

   a. Tetanus  
   b. Tuberculosis  
   c. Diphtheria  
   d. Pertussis

  
61. Which bacterium is associated with the development of stomach ulcers?

   a. Helicobacter pylori  
   b. Streptococcus pneumoniae  
   c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae  
   d. Clostridium botulinum


62. What bacterial disease is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick?

   a. Lyme disease  
   b. Tuberculosis  
   c. Typhoid fever  
   d. Malaria


63. Which bacterial infection can lead to severe muscle spasms and respiratory failure?

   a. Tetanus  
   b. Legionnaires' disease  
   c. Anthrax  
   d. Leprosy

 
64. What is the causative agent of gonorrhea?

   a. Treponema pallidum  
   b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae  
   c. Haemophilus influenzae  
   d. Bordetella pertussis

  
65. Which bacterial infection is commonly associated with contaminated wounds and can produce a potent neurotoxin?

   a. Botulism  
   b. Tetanus  
   c. Anthrax  
   d. Leprosy


66. What is the primary purpose of bacterial vaccines?

a) Treat bacterial infections  
b) Prevent bacterial infections  
c) Boost the immune system  
d) None of the above  


67. Which of the following is an example of a bacterial vaccine?

a) MMR  
b) Influenza  
c) Tetanus  
d) Hepatitis B  


68. How do bacterial vaccines typically work?

a) By directly killing bacteria  
b) By boosting the body's immune response to bacteria  
c) By providing antibiotics  
d) By replacing damaged tissues  


69. Which bacterial vaccine is commonly administered to prevent pneumonia and meningitis in infants?

a) DTaP  
b) Hib  
c) HPV  
d) MMR  


70. What is the purpose of a booster shot in bacterial vaccination?

a) To enhance the vaccine's flavor  
b) To provide additional protection over time  
c) To reduce side effects  
d) To replace expired vaccines  


71. Which bacterial vaccine is recommended for individuals traveling to regions with a high risk of typhoid fever?

a) Hepatitis B  
b) Typhoid  
c) Meningococcal  
d) Pneumococcal  


72. What is the recommended age for receiving the HPV (Human Papillomavirus) vaccine?

a) Infancy  
b) Adolescence  
c) Adulthood  
d) Elderly  


73. Which bacterial vaccine is commonly administered in a series of five doses during childhood to prevent diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis?

a) MMR  
b) DTaP  
c) Hepatitis A  
d) Varicella  


74. What is a common side effect of bacterial vaccines?

a) Temporary soreness at the injection site  
b) Permanent immunity  
c) Allergic reactions  
d) Vision impairment  


75. What is the primary role of beneficial bacteria in the human digestive system?

   a) Cause infections
   b) Break down food and aid in digestion
   c) Produce toxins
   d) None of the above

   
76. Which of the following is an example of beneficial bacteria used in the fermentation of dairy products?

   a) Escherichia coli (E. coli)
   b) Salmonella
   c) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
   d) Staphylococcus aureus

 
77. Beneficial bacteria play a crucial role in:

   a) Causing diseases
   b) Environmental pollution
   c) Nitrogen fixation in soil
   d) None of the above

   
78. How do beneficial bacteria contribute to the health of plants?

   a) By causing plant diseases
   b) By enhancing nutrient absorption
   c) By reducing water intake
   d) None of the above

 
79. In wastewater treatment, beneficial bacteria are used for:

   a) Increasing pollution
   b) Breaking down organic matter
   c) Killing aquatic life
   d) None of the above


80. Why are bacterial vaccines considered a crucial component of public health?

a) They are cost-effective  
b) They prevent the spread of infectious diseases  
c) They eliminate the need for antibiotics  
d) They enhance the taste of food  




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Location: Larkana, Sindh, Pakistan

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